Julian Pottage
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So long as you do not hesitate and pass (when responder might then decide to pass 2D as well) you will indeed normally get two chances to bid. Showing a suit on the first round, if you have one good enough to show, sounds sensible. If you do not have a suit and your hand is not suitable for a 2NT overcall, you either double or pass on the first round depending upon your strength. Doubling and then passing is similar to a weak no-trump while passing then doubling shows a minimum takeout double. Strong hands double first time and then double again or take some other suitable action on the second round.
Since you do want a very weak hand to be declarer, it would be better to play the 2NT response as something stronger than 0-3. Although the precise method you suggest is indeed rarely played, it is quite common to play a 2H response as 0-3 points. If responder shows 0-3 with the 2H response, the players are then aware that they are likely just to be looking for the best game rather than for a slam. The other advantage to playing a 2H as response as 0-3 (in comparison with using 2D as a first negative and 2NT as a second negative) is that responder does not bid NT. A hand in the 0-3 range is not going to have a lot of stoppers, so it is particularly important to have the strong hand declare a NT contract.
The two things are different. If you are talking about a Jacoby raise, this is about showing strength and strength sometimes with little interest beyond game. Control showing cue bids come in once you have already agreed a suit and when at least one membership of the partnership can envisage the playing strength for a slam.
If responder makes a Jacoby raise and either opener or responder is non-minimum, a cue bid will often follow. The two things you mention compliment one another rather than act in competition.
Playing a jump raise (1S-3S) as forcing went out of fashion a long time ago.
With 13 HCP East would be too strong for a limit jump raise to 3S but suppose you miscount and do bid 3S. Then after 1S-3S-4C-4D-4S you would work out that since news of the diamonds control did not excite partner then a heart control must be what is required. Given that you have first-round heart control (and more values than partner has any right to expect) then you should bid on.
I have passed on the suggestion as requested.
Please could you include a diagram with your query.
Hi Brian, I usually play that a double of a freely bid contract like this asks for an unusual lead. In this case, given that East could have doubled 2D with diamonds, the unusual lead requested is clubs. Julian
Yes I do not mind a 1NT rebid on the South hand. The six-card club suit is worth at least a point, bringing the hand into the 15-17 range. I did not feel strongly, which is why I went along with the original auction as far as I could.
If opener would have passed 2S without intervention then it will usually be right to do so with the intervention. The exceptions would be if opener has six spades or, when non vulnerable, if opener has five spades and a singleton. In those case a pre-emptive 3S would be in order.
If the opener has such a good hand that he is confident of making 2S, he should perhaps be redoubling or making game try.
It will be rare for the bidding to end in 2S doubled, so if opener is planning to compete to 3S it is indeed better to do so before the opponents have found their fit.
Your suggested auction seems absolutely fine. Since the doubleton HQ is no-trump orientated I do not feel strongly about the initial 1NT response, although I would raise to 2S myself. The actual auction in which South starts with a minimum response and then bids game even though North has not issued a game invitation is poor. A human South would remember the 1100 penalty and bid differently next time. I am not sure a computer would so the same!
Dear Alun,
Yes a responder’s reverse is forcing, so passing 3H is not an option. For all you know, partner is thinking of a slam. South does not have an easy rebid over 2S because without a club stopper 2NT could go wrong, though with the misfit it is better to keep the bidding low.
Julian
This is a possible auction:
North South
1C (this is a South bid)
1S 2C
3H 4D
4S 6C
I play a new suit rebid at the two level by responder as forcing (I would expect Bernard does too). This means that a jump to the three level (3H) is available as a splinter, showing a shortage in the suit bid, support for opener and sufficient values that a slam may be present.
South can see that the HK is not pulling full weight facing a singleton but the hand would be an opening bid even if the HK were a small card. Controls in the unbid diamond suit are excellent and South does have six clubs (you would sometimes have to rebid 5-card club suit on this sequence if you had a 4-card red suit and are too weak to reverse). South therefore co-operates with a 4D cue bid. North can be fairly sure after this that South has both minor-suit aces but marks time with a 4S cue bid. Since North has bypassed 4H, South knows the HA is a loser and so settles for 6C.
Please can you tell me the hand?
Bidding in bridge works better if you and your partner agree things rather assume. Bernard does indeed teach that once you have doubled 1NT then subsequent doubles are for penalties too. This has the merit of clarity and simplicity. Not everyone plays these doubles for penalties (and indeed the double would be takeout for me with any of my regular partners). If you have agreed to follow Bernard’s methods then yes the double is penalties but because a lot of people these days play all low level doubles of suit bids for takeout I do not think you can assume it is for penalties without any knowledge of your partner’s background.
As well as the fact that your shape is 4333, you have (as you point out) no tens or aces and you also have only six cards in the majors. Your decision to pass because you were vulnerable seems reasonable. Point count is a guide rather than a straight jacket.
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