Julian Pottage
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A cue bid higher than 4NT should show 1st round control. You ask whether responder would bid the same way without the SK, so something like 10xxx AKx Kx Jxxx. That is a good question – possibly yes. Even then 6S would have play, requiring a favourable position in one of the black suits.
I would overcall 1S and be willing to compete to 2S on the next round. If you were vulnerable, the poor spade suit might deter you from bidding 2S on the next round if the opponents have not found a fit. I do not think the scoring method would make any difference.
Barring a 5-1 spade split you have 12 top tricks in 6NT – but this is hard to identify in the bidding. With diamonds as trumps, a club ruff provides a thirteenth trick. Reaching 7D is very difficult. You might get there is South makes 4C splinter rather than a 3D raise – but that is a bit aggressive and the fact that the singleton is the ace is a flaw too.
After the normal raise to 3D, North bids 3H to show heart values and imply a club weakness. If South bid 3S over that, it would show six spades or a very strong 5-card suit, so that is not the right bid. I think South’s correct continuation is 4C. This should show a club shortage because with club values South bid 3NT. The fact that South’s singleton is the ace is a coincidence. Facing short clubs, North is very interested in a slam and checks on key cards. You are going to reach at least 6D now.
Incidentally, you have posted your scores for boards 9-16, only one of which is relevant to the discussion. Seeing the results at the other tables on board 11 might be of greater interest. If you click on ‘other tables’ before doing the screen print then the results from other tables will appear.
Please can you post any questions about what is legal in David Stevenson’s section of the forum. I would add though that with 12 points and six clubs it would be usual simply to raise 1NT to 3NT.
Please could you clarify what your question is here? If you are asking whether I agree with North’s double, yes I do. Although the North hand has only three spades, double is a lot better than 2NT, which would show two 5-card minors and so quite a lie.
That is a good question. I think the 5H cue bid is enough. It shows the HA while denying the CK and thus implies something in spades.
If responder hand a hand to bid 4D over 4C, opener would bid 4S denying a heart control. Opener has already shown slam interest by bidding 4C, so if holding the HA and anything like a respectable 3S raise responder would bid on.
No textbook will say what to open with a hand of such extreme shape – such hands just do not occur often enough.
Since would open 3D with a diamond suit like this and a collection of low cards outside, a 3D opening is not appropriate with the actual hand. With only 11 HCP a strong opening is much of an overbid as a 3D opening is an underbid. You either open 1D or 5D. I would probably choose the latter. North would bid 6NT over 5D and South find a raise (or conversion to 7D) on the basis that North was expecting the HA to be missing and so must have great cards outside.
If you play weak twos in three suits, you are going to have a problem with near game hands like this. Both Bernard and I play 2C and 2D openings as strong and artificial, which means you have an easy way to start with both near game and game hands. If I was treating the hand as balanced, I would add on a couple of points for the 6-card heart suit but deduct a point for the doubleton queen, so valuing the hand as 22 points. If in your methods you would open 2NT on a balanced 22 then I would do that.
I think you mean to ask whether a bid or call becomes lead directing. You cannot play cards during the bidding.
If the opponents make a conventional bid that does not show the suit, it is usual to play that a double shows the suit. So in the example you give double shows diamonds.
After 1D-2D, a 2NT rebid does not show as little as 15. The big difference between 1D-2C and 1D-2D is that in the first auction partner has shown a minimum of 9 points whereas raising 1D to 2D shows a limited and possibly quite weak hand. After 1D-2D, 2NT shows 17-18 (maybe 16 with a good 5-card diamond suit) and 3NT shows 19.
A direct raise of 2NT to 3NT is a natural invitational bid (unless you have agreed otherwise,which sounds like you had not). In this situation I play that partner can bid 3C over 2NT to show slam interest. It is then possible to agree a suit and check on aces later.
Once you have decided that the hand is too strong for a 2S overcall, you need to follow through and bid 4S on the next round.
